Hi all.Hope you guys are all doing fine.Sorry to trouble, but I need some help regarding 3bet ranges.For eg. if opponent has a VPIP from the big bind lets say 60%, and his 3bet percentage is bout say 25%.So am i right to say that his 3bet range is 25% of the enitre hand range, and his calling range is 35% of the entire hand range, or that his 3 bet range is acutally 25% of the 60%vpip hand range, which works out to be 15% of the entire hand range.Thanks in advance.
If big blinds vpip is 60%, that means they are playing 60% of all hands from the big blind (where they have to put in money - i.e. call or 3bet)If they 3bet 25%, that means they are raising 25% of hands where you open raise (NON all in). Hands you open shove don't get counted towards this stat (in PT4 anyway). This is also out of 100% of the hands. Note that 3bet of 25% doesn't mean it is the top 25% - it could be any combination of hands but they do it 25% of the time.
Hi.Thanks for your reply, but im still a little confused about your explanation.So you are trying to say a 25% 3 bettor with vpip 50% has the same range as a 25% 3 bettor with vpip 70%?Im wondering whether im right in saying that a 25% 3 bettor with vpip 50% translates to like 12.5% of the entire possible hand combinations, Just seeking for confirmation. ThanksRegards
I believe that it is a mistake to display total VP$IP only. If you have a good HUD you should display both: SB VP$IP and BB VP$IP.One is made up by what you (or your opponent) flats and 3bets and the other is what he limps and raises (pfr). I am useing awesome HUD and for - what reason ever - my SB VP$IP is not exactly the sum of flat+3bets. Anyways, I rarely do watch the VP$IP, because I prefer to know HOW he puts the money in the pot. You should be more interested in his 3bet% the moment he 3bets other than his VP$IP.
Hi.
Hi.Thanks for the help.Sorry my bad, i think i meant VPIP from the big blind all this while and not total VPIP.Thus, a 3bet percentage of say 50%, coming from an opponent who has VPIP of 50% from the big blind is actually 3betting a narrower range than a person 3betting 30%, but has a VPIP of 100% from the big blind. Am i right to say that?Thanks once again :)
If villain 3bets the top 20% of hands (for example) then that's exactly the same range whether they have a vpip of 20% (i.e. 3bet every hand) or a vpip of 100% (i.e. 3bet 1/5 hands).I'm ignoring raising your limps in the example above (which also affects vpip). A 3bet of 50% means villain is 3betting one out of every two hands. A 3bet of 30% means villain 3bets 3 out of 10 hands. Vpip is irrelevant here.
Oh okay. Thanks for clearing that up! :)Just to confirm, the 3bet percentage is indepent on its own. Its just a percentage of the entire hands your dealt with throughout the match, whether u folded or called right?i got kinda confused, as i thought the 3bet percentage was part of the VPIP if u get what i meant.Thank you very very much batman, really appreciate it. Sorry for the noob question. Run good.
3bet is included in vpip, so if villain has a 3bet of 20% and a vpip of 40% that means villain 3bets half the time.Think of it like this:3bet = 3bet and 3bet onlyvpip = VOLUNTARILY put money in pot. A 3bet is voluntarily putting money in the pot (as opposed to posting a blind, which is forced)So when you 3bet, you also vpip. However, when you vpip you don't always 3bet (could raise a limp or call an open raise). Clear?