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cdon3822's picture
Best play vs loose passive fish in this spot?

No Limit Holdem Tournament • 2 Players

$3.40+$0.10

Hand converted by the official HUSNG.com hand converter

SB Hero 400  
BB htcpoker80 600  

Effective Stacks: 10bb

Blinds 20/40

Pre-Flop (60, 2 players)

Hero is SB

hJcA

Hero raises to 80, htcpoker80 calls 40

Flop (160, 2 players)

h9hKd6

htcpoker80 checks, Hero bets 80, htcpoker80 raises to 160, Hero folds

Final Pot: 320

htcpoker80 wins 400 ( won +160 )

Hero lost -160

RyPac13's picture
I would imagine that this is

I would imagine that this is fine here. You're getting more value than you think with a flop cbet, and vs a passive opponent you won't want to think twice about doing anything but folding when he raises here.
I'd want to define loose, but really the cbet is the key question in the hand and I think it is the right play.

cdon3822's picture
Clarification

Let me try to clarify what I meant when I specified the villain type:
I've played a lot of hands @ $3.50, $7.00 and a few @ $15.00 level.
I've also watched a lot of videos of coaches playing @ higher stakes where this is a spot where they probably would advocate raise-calling unless they give their opponent credit for being a thinking player who perceives an open jamming range here to be weaker than their min-raising range. 
The agression of the games clearly goes up as stakes increase.
@ the microstakes, there are a lot of players who want to see a lot of flops but then play fit or fold postflop.
A lot of them are not thinking in terms of effective stacks and do not understand the value of position. 
Except for the occasional extreme (tilted?) spewtard who bluffs far too much, most players don't bluff enough and when they do raise, they are ready to stack off with what they believe will be the best hand. A lot of them don't even semi-bluff their FDs unless they also have 2 overs which makes their c/r ranges very heavily weighted to >= top pair type holdings. 
A lot of your exploitative edge comes from playing single raised pots in position vs them @ 15-25BB and then relentlessly stealing postflop. 
 
Playing @ 10BB, most players have an inelastic stack off range of [Ax + PP].
If I jam here and villain holds a hand in this range, he is calling. 
Most will also call K9s +, KTo +, QJ. 
 
The point of specifying that villain was loose passive was that I have a weak read that although these players would call a jam with the above range, I suspect from the calling frequencies I've seen a lot of them are not 3b jamming as standard. I suspect that raising with the top of my range here might not actually induce any marginal expectation out of villain and I could be losing value by not simply jamming it in. 
 
I figure, I do better raising vs the inelastic range which loose passive fish would call here that they would fold to a jam eg. K5s. 
But I'm not sure it makes up for the lost value the times a loose passive player doesn't 3b jam his inelastic range which he passively calls with. 
 
I guess my question was really about the decision to raise-call or jam preflop, balancing whether the marginal expectation of raising vs a loose-passive player's elastic flatting range makes up for the lost value of not jamming vs the inelastic part of his range?
But yes I agree as played I have to fold to raise here after cbetting because these players ranges in this spot are almost 100% >=Kx bceause they don't semibluff their FDs which I have about 15% equity against and insignificant money behind to provide any implied odds.